52 LR One Question 21
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The reason I didn't choose this answer is because of the analogy flaw (?) I think - the one in your video where you say you cannot compare what is now true with what used to be true and vice versa. Just because it happened like that 20 years ago (or in this case, thousands of years) doesn't mean it will hold true today. It seems that modern writers are out of scope and I'm having trouble reconciling this.

This argument is based on the assumption that since the two works were written in different styles, they must be written by different people.
No one is claiming that the phenomenon in (C) is somehow related to Homer.
Instead, (C) shows us that a dissimilarity of style between two works does not mean they were written by two different authors. It's thus very effective at attacking the assumption of the argument and making the conclusion less likely.